THE BIBLE & LOGIC VII

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The logical conclusion we drew from Num. 20:10-12 last week was this:

TO BELIEVE = TO OBEY.”

But does the New Testament agree with this conclusion? Indeed, it does.

Let us consider John 3:36, for instance:

“Whoever BELIEVES IN the Son has eternal life;
but whoever
DISOBEYS the Son shall not see life…”

It must be noted that the old KJV is horrendously corrupted in this verse (and the NKJV followed its steps)—for the translators decided to change an entire word, which, in turn, changed the entire sentence! In truth, John uses two entirely different Greek words: the first is pisteuō, “to believe [in/on].” The latter, however, is NOT apisteō, “to disbelieve,” as one might expect, and as is used in Mark 16:16. Rather, John used the word apeitheō, which means “to disobey.”

Thus, in saying that the opposite of “believing in” Jesus is “disobeying” Jesus, the Holy Spirit—whom the Lord, Himself, sent “to guide [the apostles] into all truth” (John 14:26; 15:26; 16:13)—affirms that to “BELIEVE IN” Jesus means to “OBEY” Jesus!


…in saying that the opposite of “believing in” Jesus is “disobeying” Jesus, the Holy Spirit…affirms that to “BELIEVE IN” Jesus means to “OBEY” Jesus!


In fact, the word translated “to believe (in),” itself, carries with it the implication of obedience. If someone tells you that you will fall over dead if you don’t do exactly as they instruct you, whether or not you believe them will be shown by whether or not you do what they say—that is, whether or not you obey their word)!

The same is true of “believing (in)” God: a “believer” is one who DOES what God says in His word (cf. Jas. 1:22; 2:14-26).

Questions? seth@hwycoc.com.

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